IS THE GOD OF THE OLD TESTAMENT A DIFFERENT GOD THAN IN THE NEW TESTAMENT?


In a letter to the editor, a Glenn Flettt in commenting about an earlier article, wrote the following:

“The article... inadvertently point[s] out the inconsistency of biblical depictions of God's character that are more likely to dissuade people from accepting Christianity.

The Bible demands of us that we accept both God of the Old Testament (the vengeful one who condones the selling of daughters and slaves), with God of the New Testament (the gracious and forgiving One).

We are offered no explanation as to what caused this personality make-over in the Almighty. And while we are told to believe that the contradictory depictions of God are “gospel”, Christians such as Mr. H__, try to persuade us that we 'need to paint our picture of God from the palette of Jesus' life and teachings rather than through the Old Testament portrayals of God.'” 1

In like vein, in response to a question that asked, which would you prefer “God or chance” (as an explanation for the world condition) a correspondent said: “...which would I prefer, God or chance? This would depend on which of your Gods you're talking about; the omnibenevolent, loving, caring father figure or the jealous, violent smiter. Because your God seems to flick between the two at the drop of a hat.”

These seem like very legitimate questions that should be addressed, but I do not know that I have a convincing answer.

While I want to make some effort at answering these objections and bringing to the discussion some reasons or excuses for the seeming contradictions, I want to begin first by just stepping back and making a few observations. (Musings as it were.)

First, it struck me how very presumptuous it must seem of us to put these great questions forward, or to think we can offer a satisfying answer. We seem to do so as though we were the first to come up with either the questions or the answers; as though either our asking is going to “stump the panel”or our answer is going to bring light for the first time in history. In other words, if this great conundrum is so obvious to us, was it not also very clear to generations before us, and have not theologians given “reasonable explanations” already? Perhaps they were reasonable but were they convincing? I don't want to rush off to the “text book answers” (right away) but want to just throw out what questions come to my mind as possible approaches, and then later, maybe consult what the sages have said about this perceived problem.

If we begin with the basic doctrinal statement that says God is “immutable” that is “he changes not” then I will need to give myself a definition of what that means that allows for these proposition from these above mentioned writers that claim that God has “changed” from Genesis and the Old Testament to Matthew and the New Testament. One very brief definition says that the “attribute” of God, the Immutability/Constancy is defined as “God is unchanging and unchangeable in his being.” Three Scripture references given for “support” are: Psalm 102:27, Malachi 3:6 and James 1:17. These say:

“But you [the LORD] remain the same, and your years will never end''

“I the LORD do not change.”

“Every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of the heavenly lights, who does not change like shifting shadows.”

If this is true then it seems that I must make a flat out declaration that the accusation from Mr. Flett, and others saying the same thing, must be Wrong!. Either that, or I have to come up with a way of making “vengeful” and “jealous” acts be “loving expressions.”. Or say that these external acts while appearing one way in the Old Testament and different in the New are consistent with God's “Being” and that has not “changed”.

Along with these possibilities there is also running in my mind, Jesus' answer to some Pharisees, when in effect they are raising the same issue about the expression of God's heart. Jesus is saying that from the beginning God intended that a man and woman would be joined together and become one flesh... and remain so until death. The Pharisees then say, “Yes but in the OLD TESTAMENT God gave laws about divorce, (and in their minds, was therefore condoning it) and now Jesus is trying to say God has changed his mind (and nature) and doesn't want divorce. But Jesus' answer was “No, God has not changed, but... 'Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.”

Does this exchange give a key to the whole issue of WHY some things were “tolerated” in the OT that were not allowed in the New? Is a time and cultural difference a justification for different laws? Does the fact that the Hebrews were nomads when the Levitical Laws were given, as compared to the new believers living for the most part as Roman citizens or under Roman occupation at the time of the Pax Romana make a difference? To what extent do we of the 21^st century re-interpret the commands of the New Testament to fit our culture?

Has God changed in the past 2000 years? Or even in the past 100 years? If we observe our nations and those professing to be His followers what would we conclude? But if we read His Word, where has that change been indicated?

Perhaps I should go no further in these questions without some feedback, and then we can plunge on from there for specific investigation of specific “differences” and how they might fit the picture of a omnibenevolent, loving, caring father figure”.

1. Glenn Flett, Red Deer , AB. Letter to the editor. Monday November 12, 2007. Central Alberta LIFE, (page 10)